Further Discussion On 1 Cor. 13 & 14
A number of folks have been involved in further conversation over our studies of 1 Corinthians 13 and 14 the last few days. Here are some of the questions that have been raised and my thoughts in response.
Doesn't 1 Cor. 13:8 teach that tongues is no longer an active gift? I don't think that verse says that tongues is no longer an active gift. It does say that tongues (as all other gifts) are temporal, in making the point that love is eternal. Notice that word 'but'. Do you see the point Paul is making with the contrast? There are a couple of things that we need to determine to understand verse 8 better. Let me ask those questions.
(1) Is it only 'revelatory' gifts that Paul is referring to here in verse 8, or all gifts? It appears that Paul has singled out these few revelatory gifts (prophecy, tongues & knowledge) in verse 8. However, if you look at the context Paul seems to be speaking of all gifts as temporal.
(2) What is 'that which is perfect' in verse 10 referring to? Some have argued that this refers to when the canon of Scripture was completed. I find that unsupportable in Scripture, as nowhere else is this event pointed to or spoken of as being an expectation. I think the only way to view it is that it speaks of Christ's return, when indeed, gifts will no more be needed for building up (edifying) the body.
Did you say that the gift of tongues is only mentioned here in 1 Corinthians? What about passages in Acts? What I said was that the Greek word 'glossa' that is translated 'tongues' here is only used by Paul - 21 times in these three chapters, 12, 13 & 14, and 3 other times in all the rest of his Epistles. Those other three times, I also said, do not refer to the gift of tongues, but are figures of speech, such as in saying, 'every tongue will confess'. I shared this point about the infrequency of this word being used in hopes of warning us today, as Paul was warning the believers in Corinth long ago, not to put an undue emphasis on the spiritual gift of tongues, as many in Pentecostal circles have in our times.
Did we ever establish whether the gift of tongues refers to an unitelligible language or intelligible foreign languages? As I mentioned Sunday, this is a matter of great debate. Those who stand on the side of 'ecstatic utterances' or unintelligible language point to 1 Corinthians 13 and its mention of 'tongues of angels' and in chapter 14 where it speaks of a language that is unintelligible to men, and 'by the Spirit'. Those who stand on intelligible foreign languages point to the Day of Pentecost account in Acts 2, where people all heard the message proclaimed in their native tongue. They'd perhaps also point to the end of the passage in chapter 14 where foreign languages are mentioned. I'd have to say we did not answer the question of one or the other, and offer that this is a mystery we will likely not solve this side of heaven.
Is tongues the sign of Baptism of the Spirit? First, lets look at what was before us - a study of 1 Corinthians. As you look through this letter, there is nothing to support (or even hint) that this was Paul's teaching. I'll go so far as to tell you that I don't believe Scripture teaches that tongues are a sign of Spirit Baptism, in fact I believe that's a theological misunderstanding - but, because we are in the process of studying 1 Corinthians, I'll leave that for another blog entry.
So, where are you in your consideration of these passages? Courage enough to chime in?
Doesn't 1 Cor. 13:8 teach that tongues is no longer an active gift? I don't think that verse says that tongues is no longer an active gift. It does say that tongues (as all other gifts) are temporal, in making the point that love is eternal. Notice that word 'but'. Do you see the point Paul is making with the contrast? There are a couple of things that we need to determine to understand verse 8 better. Let me ask those questions.
(1) Is it only 'revelatory' gifts that Paul is referring to here in verse 8, or all gifts? It appears that Paul has singled out these few revelatory gifts (prophecy, tongues & knowledge) in verse 8. However, if you look at the context Paul seems to be speaking of all gifts as temporal.
(2) What is 'that which is perfect' in verse 10 referring to? Some have argued that this refers to when the canon of Scripture was completed. I find that unsupportable in Scripture, as nowhere else is this event pointed to or spoken of as being an expectation. I think the only way to view it is that it speaks of Christ's return, when indeed, gifts will no more be needed for building up (edifying) the body.
Did you say that the gift of tongues is only mentioned here in 1 Corinthians? What about passages in Acts? What I said was that the Greek word 'glossa' that is translated 'tongues' here is only used by Paul - 21 times in these three chapters, 12, 13 & 14, and 3 other times in all the rest of his Epistles. Those other three times, I also said, do not refer to the gift of tongues, but are figures of speech, such as in saying, 'every tongue will confess'. I shared this point about the infrequency of this word being used in hopes of warning us today, as Paul was warning the believers in Corinth long ago, not to put an undue emphasis on the spiritual gift of tongues, as many in Pentecostal circles have in our times.
Did we ever establish whether the gift of tongues refers to an unitelligible language or intelligible foreign languages? As I mentioned Sunday, this is a matter of great debate. Those who stand on the side of 'ecstatic utterances' or unintelligible language point to 1 Corinthians 13 and its mention of 'tongues of angels' and in chapter 14 where it speaks of a language that is unintelligible to men, and 'by the Spirit'. Those who stand on intelligible foreign languages point to the Day of Pentecost account in Acts 2, where people all heard the message proclaimed in their native tongue. They'd perhaps also point to the end of the passage in chapter 14 where foreign languages are mentioned. I'd have to say we did not answer the question of one or the other, and offer that this is a mystery we will likely not solve this side of heaven.
Is tongues the sign of Baptism of the Spirit? First, lets look at what was before us - a study of 1 Corinthians. As you look through this letter, there is nothing to support (or even hint) that this was Paul's teaching. I'll go so far as to tell you that I don't believe Scripture teaches that tongues are a sign of Spirit Baptism, in fact I believe that's a theological misunderstanding - but, because we are in the process of studying 1 Corinthians, I'll leave that for another blog entry.
So, where are you in your consideration of these passages? Courage enough to chime in?
Technorati Tags: Interactive Sermon, 1 Cor. 13, 1 Cor. 14, Tongues, Spiritual Gifts, Baptism of the Spirit
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